Physics IV.11: How does Aristotle arrive at his definition of time as the number of motion in respect of before and after?

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One response to “Physics IV.11: How does Aristotle arrive at his definition of time as the number of motion in respect of before and after?”

  1. Owen Anderson

    It is also important to contrast, Aristotle and Augustine on time. Aristotle‘s definition leads him to say the material universe is without beginning. And so he must explain eternal change. Eternal change cannot be linear. It must be circular. Augustine argues that time itself had a beginning because what is eternal cannot be changing, and therefore changing beings came into existence, which is also the beginning of time. The early Christian philosophers knew very well that Aristotle’s system taught an uncreated world and that Christianity taught taught God the creator and so Aristotle was an opponent.

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